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March 28th, 2015 03:18 PM #12
Generally, no unless the buyer of the car will step into the shoes of the former owner . Let say the seller of the car will execute a deed of sale with assumption of mortgage and SPA in favor of the buyer ( dapat with consent of the bank especially if there is stipulation prohibiting the mortgagor to sell, alienate, dispose or mortgage during the existence of the mortgage contract ). Yun nga lang lugi ka
Last edited by Tj_abs; March 28th, 2015 at 03:20 PM.
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